If you argue that pedophilia can be explained via neurological disorder, then draw parallels to homesexuality, then doesn't it kind of imply that homesexuality is also a disorder? I hope I'm not coming off as rude and I understand your argument but there's no conclusive evidence to suggest that attraction to the same gender is in anyway stemming from a disorder and as someone who's had to deal with alot of homophobia I'm kind of worried about the negative implications of your view
no, my view does not imply that being gay stems from a disorder just because pedophilia may stem from a disorder. anyone who makes that jump in interpreting my argument would be wrong to do so.
similar effects can have different causes. think about convergent evolution: the independent evolution of similar species in different lineages. bats and birds are similar in that they both fly, but the cause of bats’ flight is not the same as the cause of birds’ flight.
analogously, pedophiles and gay people are similar in that neither group can control who they are attracted to, but the cause of a pedophile’s attraction is not the same as the cause of a gay person’s attraction.